所屬科目：研究所、轉學考(插大)◆分子生物學
1. The first three bases of the 6-base recognition cleavage site of HindIII are AAG. What is the complete sequence of this 6 bp site? (A) AAGAAG (B) AAGCTT (C) AAGGAA (D) AAGCUU
2. Plasmids used in recombinant DNA technology typically (A) possess a gene for antibiotic resistance. (B) replicate independently of the host genome. (C) are circular double stranded molecules. (D) All of the above.
3. What is the advantage of adding SDS to gel electrophoresis? (A) SDS colors the proteins for visualization. (B) SDS reduces disulfide bonds. (C) SDS allows proteins to be separated on the basis of approximate mass. (D) None of the above.
4. The "energy carrier" ATP is an example of a(n): (A) deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate (B) ribonucleotide (C) di-nucleotide (D) ribonucleoside triphosphate
5. For identification of a gene using the Southern blot analysis, against which strand of DNA must the probe complement? (A) either the top or bottom strand (B) only the coding strand (C) only the template strand (D) None of the above
6. Which of the following strand of DNA always has the same sequence (except T → U) as its corresponding primary transcript? (A) Leading strand (B) Watson strand (C) Crick strand (D) Nontemplate strand
7. Which of the following affect(s) the sedimentation of a particle? (A) mass (B) shape (C) the density of the solution (D) All of the above.
8. What did Watson and Crick suggest to be significant about the base pairing found in the helix? (A) It allowed the DNA to twist in a helix. (B) The DNA could be circular. (C) It was a mechanism for copying. (D) All of the above.
9. What two properties of water are important for biological interactions: (A) the polarity of water (B) the density of water (C) the cohesive properties of water (D) A and C
10. "Footprinting" or DNase protection is a technique used to identify: (A) a region of DNA that has been damaged by mutation. (B) E. coli cells that contain a desired, cloned piece of DNA. (C) the position of a particular gene of a chromosome. (D) the specific binding site of a repressor, polymerase, or other protein on the DNA.
11. Coronaviruses are enveloped positive-sense RNA viruses. Which of the following methods can be used to detect COVID-19? (A) PCR. (B) RT-PCR. (C) Southern blot. (D) None of the above.
12. Small non-coding RNAs function in gene expression and regulation. Which of the following statements about small non-coding RNAs is true? (A) Small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs) primarily guide chemical modifications of other RNAs. (B) Small nucleolar RNAs (snoRNAs) function in pre-mRNA splicing. (C) MicroRNAs (miRNAs) function in RNA silencing and translational regulation. (D) All of the above.
13. RNA helicases are important for RNA metabolism. Which of the following reactions requires RNA helicases? (A) Transcription. (B) pre-mRNA splicing. (C) Translation initiation. (D) All of the above.
14. Antibodies are used in many research applications. Which of the following experiments usually requires antibodies? (A) Flow cytometry. (B) Northern blot. (C) Cryogenic electron microscopy (cryo-EM). (D) Mass spectrometry (MS).
15. CRISPR/Cas9 is a powerful gene-editing tool. Which of the following genetic edits can be performed with CRISPR/Cas9? (A) Disrupting the original DNA sequence and causing gene inactivation. (B) Deleting a larger fragment of DNA sequence. (C) Correcting or inserting a gene. (D) All of the above.
16. Hypoxia refers to a state in which oxygen supply is insufficient. Which of the following statements about the cellular response to hypoxia is true? (A) Hemoglobin plays a key role in sensing low blood oxygen. (B) Hypoxia activates general translation. (C) Hypoxia induces glucose uptake and glycolysis. (D) Hypoxia inhibits autophagy and apoptosis.
17. A reverse transcriptase (RT) is an enzyme used to generate complementary DNA (cDNA) from an RNA template, a process termed reverse transcription. Which of the following enzymes is not a reverse transcriptase? (A) HIV-1 reverse transcriptase (RT). (B) HCV RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRp). (C) Retrotransposons. (D) Telomerase.
18. The recognition sequence of a restriction endonuclease is 8 nucleotides. The genome of λ phage contains 48,490 base pairs of double-stranded, linear DNA. How many restriction sites should be predicted in a λ phage genomic DNA? (A) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4.
19. Nucleolus is the sites where ribosomes are assembled. Which one of the following is usually NOT observed in nucleolus: (A) rDNA repeats (B) rRNA (C) ribosomomal proteins (RPs) (D) 80S ribosomes
20. MicroRNA (miRNA) degrades mRNA by binding to its complementary target sequence in the 3'UTR. Which one of the following experimental approaches will NOT lead to up-regulation of mRNA levels? (A) Depletion of the particular miRNA. (B) Deletion of the complementary target site from 3'UTR (C) Overexpression of miRNA (D) Disruption of miRNA processing complex
21. Which of the following experimental methods is NOT commonly used to analyze mRNA expression? (A) RT-PCR (B) Western blot (C) northern blot (D) enhancer/promoter reporter assay
22. Which of the following statements about nucleosome is wrong? (A) It is only present in eukaryotes. (B) It is important for chromatin condensation/de-condensation (C) It is important for regulation of mRNA expression. (D) It directly associates with microtubules.
23. Knock-down of which one of the following does not directly influence protein translation? (A) TATA box binding protein (B) RNA polymerase I (C) rRNA (D) genes encoding ribosomal proteins
24. A __ is a piece of extrachromosomal DNA that has its own replication origin. (A) plasmid (B) operon (C) prophage (D) introns
25. The process by which the base sequence of all or a portion of a DNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of an RNA molecule is called (A) replication. (B) transcription. (C) reverse transcription. (D) translation.
26. Transfer of genetic information via direct cell-cell contact is called (A) transformation. (B) transduction. (C) transfection. (D) conjugation.
27. Restriction endonucleases in bacteria may have evolved in order to (A) carry out natural genetic engineering. (B) protect the bacteria from infection by viruses. (C) use nucleic acids as a food (energy) source. (D) All of the above
28. Which of the followings is NOT true of cloning vectors? (A) They usually contain multicloning sites or polylinkers. (B) They contain at least two replication origins. (C) They can be replicated within an appropriate host. (D) All of the above [Image]
29. In a promoter, what is the definition of position "+1"? (A) First nucleotide of open reading frame (B) RNA polymerase II transcription start site (C) Translation start site - ATG (D) Binding site of TATA box protein
30. Which is NOT true in a "promoter reporter assay"? (A) DNA sequence from a genomic region suspected of being able to drive transcription is fused with a reporter gene. (B) A reporter gene is a protein that gives a signal when the gene is expressed and the protein translated. (C) A series of sequential deletions of the sequence are made on reporter gene. (D) Followed by measurement of the reporter gene activity.
31. In CRISPR-Cas9 technology, the RNA-guide endonuclease will first engineer a DNA double strand breaks at specific genomic loci where precise editing could be achieve by - (A) Nucleotide excision repair (B) Mismatch repair (C) Base excision repair (D) Homology-directed repair
32. Which is NOT true about "genome"? (A) A genome is an organism's complete set of genetic information. (B) A genome includes all of the hereditary instructions for creating and maintaining life, as well as instruction for reproduction. (C) The instructions in genome are all made up of DNA. (D) All living things have a unique genome.
33. Which is TRUE about conserved sequence? (A) Conserved sequences are dissimilar sequences in nucleic acids or proteins. (B) Conserved sequences indicate that a sequence has been maintained by evolution. (C) A highly conserved sequence is one that has remained relatively unchanged during natural selection. (D) Conserved sequence could be observed between proteins from different species (paralogous).
34. Which is NOT true about RNA splicing? (A) RNA splicing is a form of RNA processing in which a newly made precursor messenger RNA transcript is transformed into a mature messenger RNA. (B) During splicing, introns are removed and exons are joined together. (C) Some RNA molecules have the capacity to splice themselves. (D) During splicing, the intron base pairs with the downstream branch sequencing forms a hairpin before the exon is cut and joined.
35. Which is the study of heritable phenotype changes that do NOT involve alterations in the DNA sequence? (A) Epigenetics (B) Perigenetic (C) Orthogenetic (D) Oncogenetics
36. Which of the following is NOT an example of epigenetic change? (A) X-inactivation (B) DNA methylation (C) Histone modification (D) DNA mutation
37. In epigenetic regulation, 5-methylcytosine can be spontaneously deaminated to form (A) Thymine (B) Uracil (C) Guanine (D) Cytosine
38. The bisulfite conversion step prior to the DNA methylation detection is to deaminate unmethylated cytosines into (A) Guanine (B) Thymine (C) Uracil (D) methylated cytosines
39. The most commonly used radioactive label in DNA Sanger sequencing is (A) 32p (B) 36p (C) 14C (D) 12C
40. Cis-regulatory elements are always (A) located on a different chromosome to the transcribed gene (B) located on the same chromosome to the transcribed gene (C) located on the homologous chromosome to the transcribed gene (D) within 100 kb of the promotor of the transcribed gene
41. Pseudo autosomal regions are (A) regions of sex chromosomes devoid of histones to allow transcription in females (B) regions of autosomes inactivated by methylation in both males and females (C) regions of sex chromosomes able to undergo homologous recombination in females (D) regions around the centromere devoid of gene expression
42. Genetic imprinting is a mechanism which allows (A) genes on Y-chromosome to show reduced expression in males (B) genes on X-chromosome to show reduced expression in females (C) expression of methylated genes at reduced efficiency (D) genes to be expressed in a parent of origin manner
43. In transcription of mRNA, the DPE element stands for (A) Downstream promoter element (B) Downstream enhancer (C) Driver of proximal enhancement (D) Driver of promoter enhancement
44. During the genomic DNA isolation, which of the following step is not necessary (A) Concentration (B) Lysis (C) Purification (D) Precipitation
45. Double stranded DNA molecules are unwound by (A) Polynucleotide kinase (B) DNA polymerase (C) Restriction endonuclease (D) DNA helicase
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