114年 - 114 中國醫藥大學_學士後中醫學系入學招生考試：英文#126245

1. The busload of tourists suddenly saw the movie star and basically _____ over the side of the bus screaming her name.(A) creeped (B) drooped (C) subsided (D) tinkered

2. For the third year in a row, the phrase _____ in ubiquity in late-May/early-June, according to Google Trends. Indeed, you can see it everywhere.
(A) surmounted (B) sputtered (C) steered (D) spiked

3. Numerous leaks in recent days claim the President is at odds with most of his senior team,allegedly deliberately countermanding their best advice like an _____ toddler.
(A) obsequious (B) obstreperous (C) opprobrious (D) ostentatious

4. British politicians can say all sorts of rubbish to the BBC that wouldn’t count as a crime, but government ministers are not supposed to knowingly mislead — artfully _____?
(A) authenticate (B) disambiguate (C) enumerate (D) prevaricate

5. Emily tried to finish the project alone but in vain, so eventually she had to _____.
(A) lose her marbles (B) slap in the face(C) throw in the towel (D) stir the pot

6. The small nation felt _____ to its powerful neighbor, obliged to obey even when it didn’t want to.
(A) subsequent (B) subservient (C) subliminal (D) subversive

7. The scientists are pushing the _____ of what’s possible in space exploration, trying to go beyond the normal limits.
(A) letter (B) package (C) envelope (D) container

8. The diplomat’s _____ response to the direct question left reporters unsure about the government’s actual position on the matter.
(A) equivocal (B) luxurious (C) deprecating (D) feudalistic

9. The vice president found herself grappling with the uncertainty ____ the newly implemented policy, designed to streamline operations and cut unnecessary expenses, would actually yield the intended financial benefits.
(A) of whether (B) if whether (C) whether (D) whether with

10. The scientist, intrigued by the extraordinary biological mechanisms of microscopic organisms, devoted years of research to understanding _____ a seemingly insignificant life form could produce energy at an efficiency level unmatched by larger species.
(A) even such (B) that as (C) how such (D) what so

11. Unless she presented a compelling argument supported by strong evidence, the board _____ her proposal without further discussion.
(A) should merely object to (B) must possibly refuse
(C) would likely have rejected (D) could scarcely disapprove

12. The project advanced _____, as unpredictable funding delays and shifting team dynamics repeatedly interrupted the momentum that had briefly gathered.
(A) by fits and starts (B) in dribs and drabs
(C) by leaps and bounds (D) through tit for tat

13. _____ about the traffic, I would have left earlier.
(A) If I knew (B) Knowing (C) If I have known (D) Had I known

14. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
(A) She avoided to speak during the meeting.
(B) The lecturer recommended to read a number of books before the exam.
(C) They enjoy to swim in the lake during summer.
(D) I asked to see his identification before I let him into the house.

15. Which of the following sentences is NOT grammatically accurate?
(A) Whatever you decide is fine with me.
(B) Whoever arrives first gets the best seats is the rule.
(C) What he said bothered everyone in the room.
(D) How this device works confuses many students.

16. (A) reverse (B) reanimate (C) remit (D) reckon

17. (A) With regards to (B) By means of
(C) In collaboration with (D) In comparison with

18. (A) To measure (B) As measured by
(C) Measuring up to (D) Taking the measure of

19. (A) without (B) as well as (C) but not on (D) in spite of

20. (A) did not correlate with (B) were in consensus with
(C) were coordinated by (D) corresponded to

21. (A) turns into (B) comes into (C) steps up (D) falls down

22. (A) although (B) despite (C) if (D) as

23. (A) where (B) what (C) there (D) why

24. (A) eccentric (B) benevolent (C) content (D) affluent

25. (A) Rarely (B) Accidentally (C) Ultimately (D) Centrally

26.(A)Nerli conducted a randomized clinical trial to investigate the efficacy of a brief outpatient rehabilitation program using a cognitive behavioral approach for PCC.
(B) Over the past few decades, substantial evidence has amassed for the efficacy of CBT for symptoms in the context of somatic conditions, including chronic fatigue syndrome.
(C) Theoretically, given that physiologic, cognitive, behavioral, and social processes are correlated, it follows that change in one system will bring about a change in the others. (D)So far, there should be no other explanation for the symptoms that may substantially impact daily activities.

27.(A)Nerli conducted a randomized clinical trial to investigate the efficacy of a brief outpatient rehabilitation program using a cognitive behavioral approach for PCC.
(B) Over the past few decades, substantial evidence has amassed for the efficacy of CBT for symptoms in the context of somatic conditions, including chronic fatigue syndrome.
(C) Theoretically, given that physiologic, cognitive, behavioral, and social processes are correlated, it follows that change in one system will bring about a change in the others. (D)So far, there should be no other explanation for the symptoms that may substantially impact daily activities.

28.(A)Nerli conducted a randomized clinical trial to investigate the efficacy of a brief outpatient rehabilitation program using a cognitive behavioral approach for PCC.
(B) Over the past few decades, substantial evidence has amassed for the efficacy of CBT for symptoms in the context of somatic conditions, including chronic fatigue syndrome.
(C) Theoretically, given that physiologic, cognitive, behavioral, and social processes are correlated, it follows that change in one system will bring about a change in the others. (D)So far, there should be no other explanation for the symptoms that may substantially impact daily activities.

29.

30.(A)Numerous other studies have documented the robust relationship between early phonological
awareness and subsequent reading achievement.
(B) In a later review, Torgesen (1999) concluded that the limited amount of information gained
from the assessment of phonological awareness may not warrant the use of a phonological
awareness assessment given the amount of time needed to administer, score, and interpret
such an assessment.
(C) Additionally, deficits in phonological awareness have been linked to reading disabilities.
(D)This possibility has led reading researchers to question the usefulness of phonological
awareness assessments once a certain level of reading achievement has been attained. 

31.(A)Numerous other studies have documented the robust relationship between early phonological
awareness and subsequent reading achievement.
(B) In a later review, Torgesen (1999) concluded that the limited amount of information gained
from the assessment of phonological awareness may not warrant the use of a phonological
awareness assessment given the amount of time needed to administer, score, and interpret
such an assessment.
(C) Additionally, deficits in phonological awareness have been linked to reading disabilities.
(D)This possibility has led reading researchers to question the usefulness of phonological
awareness assessments once a certain level of reading achievement has been attained. 

32.(A) The etymology of “Karen” remains contested, with multiple potential origins identified in
popular culture, movies and media.
(B) This tension demonstrates how contemporary internet culture rapidly codifies, disseminates,
and normalizes new forms of social critique.
(C) This pejorative designation typically refers to upper-middle-class white American women
perceived as exhibiting entitled behavior, particularly in service-oriented contexts.
(D) Visual signifiers, most notably a distinctive blonde-highlighted bob haircut, have become
associated with the archetype as often seen in these widespread memes.

33.(A) The etymology of “Karen” remains contested, with multiple potential origins identified in
popular culture, movies and media.
(B) This tension demonstrates how contemporary internet culture rapidly codifies, disseminates,
and normalizes new forms of social critique.
(C) This pejorative designation typically refers to upper-middle-class white American women
perceived as exhibiting entitled behavior, particularly in service-oriented contexts.
(D) Visual signifiers, most notably a distinctive blonde-highlighted bob haircut, have become
associated with the archetype as often seen in these widespread memes.

34.(A) The etymology of “Karen” remains contested, with multiple potential origins identified in
popular culture, movies and media.
(B) This tension demonstrates how contemporary internet culture rapidly codifies, disseminates,
and normalizes new forms of social critique.
(C) This pejorative designation typically refers to upper-middle-class white American women
perceived as exhibiting entitled behavior, particularly in service-oriented contexts.
(D) Visual signifiers, most notably a distinctive blonde-highlighted bob haircut, have become
associated with the archetype as often seen in these widespread memes.

35.(A) The etymology of “Karen” remains contested, with multiple potential origins identified in
popular culture, movies and media.
(B) This tension demonstrates how contemporary internet culture rapidly codifies, disseminates,
and normalizes new forms of social critique.
(C) This pejorative designation typically refers to upper-middle-class white American women
perceived as exhibiting entitled behavior, particularly in service-oriented contexts.
(D) Visual signifiers, most notably a distinctive blonde-highlighted bob haircut, have become
associated with the archetype as often seen in these widespread memes.

36. What is the primary goal of this survey study?
(A) To assess how effective cancer treatment plans have been in practice
(B) To evaluate patient satisfaction with survivorship programs offered
(C) To examine the availability of services in cancer care programs nationwide
(D) To analyze the financial costs of providing survivorship services overall

37. Based on the article, which of the following statements about survivorship programs is NOT true?
(A) Many hospitals lack trained staff to facilitate these programs.
(B) Hsopitals are requested by national health organizations for accreditation.
(C) The programs require resources and their benefits are recognized.
(D) Many survivors have access to receiving these types of care programs.

38. What constitutes a chief obstacle to patient participation in survivorship care?
(A) High expenses of treatment and therapy programs frustrating patient interest
(B) Lack of understanding and inadequate doctor recommendation to survivorship services
(C) Limited availability of treatment summaries after patient discharge from hospitals
(D) Neither genetics counseling nor fertility services is widely provided.

39. How do adult survivorship clinics compare to survivorship clinics for children?
(A) They are more widely available than late-effects clinics for children.
(B) They follow the same standardized model used in children’s hospitals.
(C) They are mostly an integral part of cancer treatment team in hospitals.
(D) They require less institutional support and fewer resources than children’s clinics.

40. According to the passage, which of the following is true about survivorship care programs?
(A) Setting up national standards for their assessment is crucial.
(B) The ideal care models need not be specialized ones.
(C) Most hospitals prioritize recruiting qualified practitioners for the programs.
(D) Computerized health records and treatment summaries are widely used.

41. According to the passage, which of the following is accurate about zero-sum thinking?
(A) It is a belief that resources are infinite and can be shared equally.
(B) It is a conviction that winners gain at the expense of losers.
(C) It refers to a psychological condition that affects mostly political leaders.
(D) It denotes a modern concept that emerged shortly after World War II.

42. Which of the following is cited as an irrational manifestation of zero-sum thinking?
(A) Perception of competition, shortage and menace leading to dread and uncertainty
(B) Accumulation of wealth through conducting a variety of economic activities
(C) The International Monetary Fund nurturing interconnectedness among nations
(D) Mercantilist hypotheses facilitating European trade and economic strategies

43. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Gold, silver, and territorial acquisition are the only true measures of wealth.
(B) Wealth accumulation can be expedited through increased productivity and innovation.
(C) Globalization and positive-sum thinking are detrimental to national power.
(D) International protectionist policies are essential to national prosperity.

44. According to the passage, which is NOT a measure that alleviates zero-sum thinking?
(A) Set up policies easing economic disadvantages in societies
(B) Promote positive-sum thinking that encourages global teamwork
(C) Utilize cooperative learning strategy in the competitive educational setting
(D) Replicate European mercantilism paradigm to achieve global peace

45. According to the passage, which of the following statements is false?
(A) Zero-sum thinking in geopolitics tends to destabilize the world order.
(B) Zero-sum bias would lead people to embrace cooperation rather than competition.
(C) Zero-sum mindset can be mitigated through slow thinking strategy.
(D) Zero-sum thinking may originate from emotional anxieties about one’s worth.

46. Which of the following statements best describes the impact of nutrient supplementation on live
birth rates in women with infertility?
(A)Antioxidants can continually improve live birth rates across all randomized controlled
trials.
(B)Calcitriol, a vitamin D form, has proven effects in significantly increasing the chances of
live birth.
(C) The evidence for the benefit of multiple micronutrients and antioxidants is uplifting but
remains dubious.
(D)L-arginine has been proven to be the most effective supplement for improving live birth
rates.

47. Why is it a challenge to provide general recommendations on the prescription of multiple
micronutrients?
(A) Most studies employed identical formulations and dosages; therefore recommendations
are redundant.
(B) The ingredients and dosages in the randomized controlled trials are too varied to warrant
efficacy.
(C) The effect of antioxidant properties in the supplements is proven adverse to warrant
intervention.
(D) Statistically significant results on reproductive outcomes are consistently presented.

48. According to the review article, which of the following is NOT true?
(A) The review included only studies on women who have been undergoing medically assisted
reproduction (MAR).
(B) The review provides inconclusive evidence that all nutrient supplements improve live
birth rates.
(C) There was a lack of high-quality randomized controlled trials, leading to weak and
uncertain evidence.
(D) While vitamin D may regulate hormone and contribute to endometrial receptivity, its
effect on fertility is unclear.

49. Based on the review, how should clinicians approach the use of nutrient supplements for infertility?
(A) Prescribe high doses of CoQ10, melatonin, and NAC to all infertile women.
(B) Strongly advise against supplement use due to potential health hazards.
(C) Promote vitamin B complex and L-arginine as the most effective fertility boosters.
(D) Recommend supplements when there is a nutritional deficiency.

50. What methodological issue complicates the interpretation of findings in this study?
(A) The trials exclusively studied women without infertility issues, making it impossible to
generalize.
(B) Antioxidant studies were conducted primarily in animal models rather than humans,
disrupting the validity of the study.
(C) The studies used different combinations and doses of antioxidants, making comparisons
unlikely.
(D) Effects of antioxidants on RCTs were systematically overstated, creating bias for the
medical community