21. In prokaryotes, the sigma factor is essential for promoter recognition. Which eukaryotic factor performs the most analogous role?
(A) TFIIB
(B) TFIIH
(C) TATA-binding protein (TBP)
(D) Mediator complex

22. Which statement best explains why eukaryotic enhancers can regulate transcription from promoters located thousands of base pairs away? (A) Enhancers encode small RNAs that migrate to the promoter (B) Enhancer–promoter communication occurs via DNA looping mediated by coactivator proteins (C) Enhancers move within the nucleus to physically bind the promoter (D) Enhancers are transcribed into mRNA that recruits RNA polymerase II

23. Which element is present in most prokaryotic promoters but not required in eukaryotic RNA Pol II promoters? (A) Pribnow box sequence (B) TATA box (C) Initiator (Inr) element (D) CAAT box

24. Which component of the CRISPR‑Cas9 system determines the specific genomic DNA target? (A) Cas9 nuclease (B) PAM sequence (C) tracrRNA alone (D) Single‑guide RNA (sgRNA)

25. A deficiency in Glucose‑6‑phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) is most likely to impair which cellular process? (A) Beta‑oxidation of fatty acids (B) Regeneration of reduced glutathione (C) Synthesis of fructose‑6‑phosphate (D) Glycogen breakdown

26. During intense exercise, lactate production increases primarily because: (A) Oxygen availability is high (B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase is activated (C) NAD⁺ regeneration is required to maintain glycolysis (D) Lactate dehydrogenase is inhibited

27. Which statement best describes the primary function of the oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway? (A) Production of ribulose‑5‑phosphate without generating NADPH (B) Conversion of pentose sugars into triose phosphates (C) Generation of NADPH and ribulose‑5‑phosphate (D) Production of ATP through substrate‑level phosphorylation

28. How does enzyme specificity arise according to the induced‑fit model? (A) The enzyme active site is rigid and pre‑shaped (B) Substrate binding causes a conformational change in the enzyme (C) Substrate and enzyme share identical structures (D) Coenzymes determine specificity directly

29. An enzyme regulated by binding of a molecule at a site other than the active site is best described as: (A) A competitive enzyme (B) A cooperatively binding enzyme (C) An enzyme under allosteric regulation (D) A constitutively active enzyme

30. Which eukaryotic translation factor directly delivers the initiator Met‑tRNAᵢ to the small ribosomal subunit? (A) eIF4E (B) eIF5 (C) eEF1A (D) eIF2‑GTP

31. Which event marks the commitment of a eukaryotic ribosome to begin translation of an mRNA? (A) Binding of the 40S subunit to eIF4E (B) Recognition of the start codon by Met‑tRNAᵢ (C) Association of the 60S ribosomal subunit (D) Formation of the closed‑loop mRNA structure

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