題組內容

    Question 2      
A gender-wage regression output shows:
ln $wage_i = 1.6573male_i + 1.1936female_i + 0.0364exper_i - 0.0321male_i \times exper_i$, where the logarithmic wage is significantly explained by two gender dummy variables, male and female, year of working experience (exper), and an interaction term: $male \times exper$. Based on the estimation result, we can conclude that, first, given zero year of working experience, male workers will be paid by      (3)      % higher than female workers. Second, the marginal return of an additional year of working experience of male workers is      (4)      % lower than that of female workers.

(3)