107年 - [無官方正解]107 國立嘉義大學_轉學生招生考試試題_獸醫學院：普通化學#144710

1. Lithium forms compounds which are used in dry cells and storage batteries and in high-temperature lubricants. It has two naturally occurring isotopes, 6Li (isotopic mass = 6.015121 amu) and 7Li (isotopic mass = 7.016003 amu). Lithium has an atomic mass of 6.9409 amu. What is the percent abundance of lithium-6? (A) 92.50% (B) 86.66% (C) 46.16% (D) 7.503% (E) 6.080%

2. Vinegar is a solution of acetic acid, CH3COOH, dissolved in water. A 5.54g sample of vinegar was neutralized by 30.10 mL of 0.100 M NaOH. What is the percent by weight of acetic acid in the vinegar? (A) 0.184% (B) 1.63% (C) 3.26% (D) 5.43% (E) 9.23%

3. Based on the solubility rules, which of the following will occur if solutions of CuSO4(aq) and BaCl₂(aq) are mixed? (A) CuCl₂ will precipitate; Ba²⁺ and SO₄^{2 –} are spectator ions. (B) CuSO₄ will precipitate; Ba²⁺ and Cl ^– are spectator ions. (C) BaSO₄ will precipitate; Cu²⁺ and Cl^– are spectator ions. (D) BaCl₂ will precipitate; Cu²⁺ and SO₄^{2 –} are spectator ions. (E) No precipitate will form.

4. Which of the following is a strong acid? (A) HF (B) KOH (C) HClO4 (D) HClO (E) HBrO

5. Which of the following is a correct set of quantum numbers for an electron in a 3d orbital? (A) n = 3, l = 0, ml = -1 (B) n = 3, l = 1, ml = +3 (C) n = 3, l = 3, ml = +2 (D) n = 3, l = 2, ml = -2 (E) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 3

6. An atom of vanadium has ___ unpaired electrons and is _____. (A) 0, diamagnetic (B) 2, diamagnetic (C) 3, paramagnetic (D) 5, paramagnetic (E) 4, diamagnetic

7. The small, but important, energy differences between 3s, 3p, and 3d orbitals are due mainly to (A) the number of electrons they can hold (B) their principal quantum number (C) the Heisenberg uncertainty principle (D) the penetration effect (E) Hund's rule

8. Select the correct electron configuration for Cu (Z = 29). (A) [Ar]4s²3d⁹ (B) [Ar]4s¹3d¹⁰ (C) [Ar]4s²4p⁶3d³ (D) [Ar]4s²4d⁹ (E) [Ar]5s²4d⁹

9. Consider the set of isoelectronic atoms and ions A^2-, B^-, C, D⁺, and E²⁺. Which arrangement of relative radii is correct? (A) A^2- > B^- > C > D⁺ > E²⁺ (B) E²⁺ > D⁺ > C > B^- > A^2- (C) A^2- > B^- > C < D⁺ < E²⁺ (D) A^2- < B^- < C > D⁺ > E²⁺ (E) None of these is correct.

10. If a molecule demonstrates paramagnetism, then :
I. The substance can have both paired and unpaired electrons.
II. The bond order is not a whole number.
III. It can be determined by drawing a Lewis structure.
IV. It must be an ion. (A)I, II (B) I, II, IV (C) II, III (D) I only (E) All of the above are correct.

11. Predict the ideal bond angles around nitrogen in N₂F₂ using the molecular shape given by the VSEPR theory. (N is the central atom.) (A) 90° (B) 109° (C) 120° (D) 180° (E) between 120 and 180°

12. Which of the following molecules has a net dipole moment? (A) BeCl₂ (B) SF₂ (C) KrF₂ (D) CO₂ (E) CCl₄

13. Valence bond theory predicts that xenon will use _____ hybrid orbitals in XeOF4. (A) sp (B) sp² (C) sp³ (D) sp³d (E) sp³d²

14. According to molecular orbital (MO) theory, the twelve outermost electrons in the O₂ molecule are distributed as follows: (A) 12 in bonding MOs, 0 in antibonding MOs. (B) 10 in bonding MOs, 2 in antibonding MOs. (C) 9 in bonding MOs, 3 in antibonding MOs. (D) 8 in bonding MOs, 4 in antibonding MOs. (E) 7 in bonding MOs, 5 in antibonding MOs.

15. Which of the following statements relating to molecular orbital (MO) theory is incorrect? (A) Combination of two atomic orbitals produces one bonding and one antibonding MO. (B) A bonding MO is lower in energy than the two atomic orbitals from which it is formed. (C) Combination of two 2p orbitals may result in either σ or π MOs. (D) A species with a bond order of zero will not be stable. (E) In a stable molecule having an even number of electrons, all electrons must be paired. 

16. One can safely assume that the 3s- and 3p-orbitals will form molecular orbitals similar to those formed when 2s- and 2p-orbitals interact. According to molecular orbital theory, what will be the bond order for the Cl₂⁺ ion? (A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 1.5 (D) 2 (E) None of these choices is correct.

17. Consider three 1-L flasks at STP. Flask A contains NH3 gas, flask B contains NO2 gas, and flask C contains N2 gas. Which contains the largest number of molecules? (A) Flask A (B) Flask B (C) Flask C (D) All are the same (E) None of these choices is correct.

18. In which flask are the molecules least polar and therefore most ideal in behavior? (A) Flask A (B) Flask B (C) Flask C (D) All are the same (E) None of these choices is correct.

19. For which of the following species are the intermolecular interactions entirely due to dispersion forces? (A) C₂H₆ (B) CH₃OCH₃ (C) NO₂ (D) H₂S

20. Which of the following liquids would have the highest viscosity at 25°C? (A) CH₃OCH₃ (B) C₂H₅OH (C) CH₃Br (D) HOCH₂CH₂OH

21. A 15.00 % by mass solution of lactose (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁, 342.30 g/mol) in water has a density of 1.0602 g/mL at 20°C. What is the molarity of this solution? (A) 0.03097 M (B) 0.4133 M (C) 0.4646 M (D) 1.590 M (E) 1.379 M

22. Which of the following systems possesses the lowest freezing point? (A) 0.1 M FeCl_3(aq) (B) 0.1 M K₂SO_4(aq) (C) 0.1 M CaCl_2(aq) (D) 0.3 M C₆H₁₂O₆, glucose (E) 0.1 M NaCl

23. For a particular process q = 20 kJ and w = 15 kJ. Which of the following statements is true? (A) Heat flows from the system to the surroundings. (B) The system does work on the surroundings. (C) E = 35 kJ (D) All of the above are true. (E) None of these choices is correct.

24. Which of the following results in a decrease in the entropy of the system? (A) O₂(g), 300 K→O₂(g), 400 K (B) H₂O(s), 0°C→ H₂O(l), 0°C (C) N₂(g), 25°C→N₂(aq), 25°C (D) NH₃(l), -34.5°C→ NH₃(g), -34.5°C (E) 2H₂O₂(g)→ 2H₂O(g) + O₂(g)

25. Given the following acids and Ka values:

What is the order of increasing base strength? (A) CN^–, F^–, OAc^–, ClO₄^– (B) CN^–, OAc^–, F^–, ClO₄^– (C) CN^–, ClO₄^–, F^–, OAc^– (D) ClO₄^–, OAc^–, CN^–, F^– (E) ClO₄^–, F^–, OAc^–, CN^–

26. According to the first law of thermodynamics, the energy of the universe is constant. Does this mean that ΔE is always equal to zero? (A) Yes, ΔE = 0 at all times, which is why q = -w. (B) No, ΔE does not always equal zero, but this is only due to factors like friction and heat. (C) No, ΔE does not always equal zero because it refers to the system's internal energy, which is affected by heat and work. (D) No, ΔE never equals zero because work is always being done on the system or by the system. (E) None of these

27. Calculate the pH of the following aqueous solution: 0.66 M NaF (pK_a for HF = 3.14) (A) 5.52 (B) 2.96 (C) 8.48 (D) 11.04 (E) none of these

28. Colligative properties depend on (A) the chemical properties of the solute. (B) the chemical properties of the solvent. (C) the masses of the individual ions. (D) the molar mass of the solute. (E) the number of particles dissolved.

29. A 0.100 m K₂SO₄ solution has a freezing point of -0.43°C. What is the van't Hoff factor for this solution? K_f = 1.86°C/m (A) 0.77 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.3 (D) 3.0 (E) >3.0

30. The reaction 2A + 5B → products is second order in A and fourth order in B. What is the rate law for this reaction? (A) rate = k[A]²[B]⁵ (B) rate = k[A]⁴[B]² (C) rate = k[A]²[B]⁴ (D) rate = k[A]⁵[B]² (E) rate = k[A]^2/7[B]^5/7

31. The K_sp of AgI is 1.5 × 10^–16. Calculate the solubility in mol/L of AgI in a 0.45 M NaI solution. (A)6.8×10^–17 (B) 0.45 (C) 1.5×10^–16 (D) 1.2×10^–8 (E) 3.3×10^–16

32. What is the formula for the pentaamminehydroxotitanium(II) ion? (A)[Ti(NH₃)(OH)₅]^3– (B) [Ti(NH₃)₅(OH)₅]²⁺ (C) [Ti(NH₃)₅(OH)]²⁺ (D)[Ti(NH₃)₅(OH)₅]^3– (E) [Ti(NH₃)₅(OH)]⁺ 

33. Which of the following complexes can exhibit optical isomerism? (en = H₂N–CH₂–CH₂–NH₂ and is bidentate) (A)cis–Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂ (B) trans–Co(en)₂Br₂ (C) cis–Co(en)₂Cl₂ (D) Co(NH₃)₃Cl₃ (E) none of these

34. Which of the following complexes shows geometrical isomerism? (A) [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]SO₄ (B) [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ (C) [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂ (D) K[Co(NH₃)₂Cl₄] (E) none of these

35. The complex ions of Zn²⁺ are all colorless. The most likely explanation for this is: (A) Zn²⁺ is paramagnetic. (B) Zn²⁺ exhibits “d orbital” splittings in its complexes such that they absorb all wavelengths in the visible region. (C) Since Zn²⁺ is a d¹⁰ ion, it does not absorb visible light even though the “d orbital” splittings are correct for absorbing visible wavelengths. (D) Zn²⁺ is not a transition metal ion. (E) None of these is correct.

36. The complex FeL₆²⁺, where L is a neutral ligand, is known to be diamagnetic. The number of d electrons in this complex ion is: (A)4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8

37. What is the correct IUPAC name for [MnCl₄(H₂O)₂]^– ? (A) diaquatetrachloromanganate(0) ion (B) diaquatetrachloromanganate(III) ion (C) diaquatetrachloromanganate(I) ion (D) diaquatetrachloromanganese(III) ion (E) diaquatetrachloromanganese(I) ion

38. What is the maximum oxidation state expected for titanium? (A)+8 (B) +5 (C) +3 (D) +2 (E) +4

39. Consider the following numbered processes:ΔH for the process A → 2C + E is
1. A→2B
2. B →C + D
3. E → 2D (A) ΔH₁+ΔH₂ +ΔH₃ (B) ΔH₁+ΔH₂ (C) ΔH₁+ΔH₂ –ΔH₃ (D) ΔH₁ + 2ΔH₂ –ΔH₃ (E) none of these

40. Which of the following species has the largest dissociation energy? (A)O₂ (B) O₂^– (C) O₂^2– (D) O₂⁺ (E) O₂²⁺