115年 - 115 台灣聯合大學系統_學士班轉學生考試試題：普通生物學#142698

1. Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction? (A) The nodes of Ranvier conduct potentials in one direction. (B) The brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated sodium channels. (C) The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the axon. (D) Voltage-gated channels for both Na+ and K+ open in only one direction.

2. Which of the following statements is an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics for a living organism? (A) The energy content of an organism is constant. (B) An organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its environment. (C) The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity. (D) Organisms grow by converting energy into organic matter.

3. A newly discovered unicellular organism isolated from acidic mine drainage is found to contain a cell wall, a plasma membrane, two flagella, and peroxisomes. Based just on this information, the organism is most likely_____. (A) a nonmotile prokaryote (B) a motile bacterium (C) a motile archaea (D) a motile eukaryote

4. A patient who underwent cholecystectomy develops steatorrhea after consuming a high-fat meal. Which digestive process is most directly impaired? (A) Protein hydrolysis by pepsin (B) Emulsification of lipids by bile salts (C) Carbohydrate digestion by amylase (D) Absorption of amino acids

5. The nuclear lamina is an array of intermediate filaments that line the inner side of the nuclear membrane. If a chemical treatment caused the lamina to disassemble, what would you expect to be the most likely immediate consequence? (A) Closing of nuclear pores (B) The inability of the nucleus to divide during cell division (C) A loss of genetic information from chromosomes (D) A change in the shape of the nucleus

6. A research team is working on the design of a new drug for the treatment of lung cancer. To be most effective, this drug must specifically enter the cytoplasm of lung cells while not entering the cells of other tissues. Which of the following characteristics would likely enhance the specificity of this drug? (A) The relative hydrophobicity of the drug molecule (B) Phospholipid composition of lung cell plasma membranes (C) Specificity of the drug molecule for binding to the extracellular matrix of lung cells (D) Similarity of the drug molecule to other molecules normally transported lung cells

7. Which of the following statements correctly describes osmosis? (A) Osmosis only takes place in red blood cells. (B) Osmosis is an energy-demanding or "active" process. (C) In osmosis, water moves across a membrane from areas of lower solute concentration to areas of higher solute concentration. (D) In osmosis, solutes move across a membrane from areas of lower water concentration to areas of higher water concentration. 

8. If the adrenal cortex were surgically removed, an increase in the plasma levels of_____ would likely be observed. (A) glucocorticoid hormones (B) epinephrine (C) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) (D) acetylcholine

9. Researchers cultured embryonic liver cells on a synthetic surface that lacked extracellular matrix (ECM) proteins. Although growth factors were present, the cells failed to activate several genes normally expressed during liver development. Which type of membrane protein is most likely required for transmitting signals from the ECM to the nucleus? (A) Integrins (B) Fibronectins (C) Actin microfilaments (D) Receptor tyrosine kinases

10. Which of the following processes generally requires protein phosphorylation? (A) Activation of receptor tyrosine kinases (B) Activation of steroid hormone receptors (C) Activation of G protein-coupled receptors (D) Activation ligand-gated ion channels

11. Under high light conditions, a plant mutant exhibits a higher ATP/NADPH ratio than wild-type plants while maintaining similar rates of oxygen evolution. Which process is most likely enhanced in the mutant? (A) Water oxidation at photosystem II (B) Reduction of NADP+ by ferredoxin-NADP+ reductase (C) Cyclic electron flow around photosystem I (D) Carbon fixation by Rubisco

12. Which of the following processes would be most directly affected if a thylakoid membrane is punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma? (A) Splitting of water (B) Flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I (C) Synthesis of ATP (D) Reduction of NADP+

13. A cell is treated with a drug that prevents kinetochore microtubules from attaching to chromosomes. Which stage of mitosis would most likely be disrupted? (A) DNA replication during S phase (B) Alignment of chromosomes at the metaphase plate (C) Cytokinesis (D) Chromosome condensation during prophase

14. A population of actively dividing cells is analyzed by flow cytometry. One group of cells contains twice as much DNA as another group. The cells with the higher DNA content are most likely in: (A) G1 only (B) G2 (C) G0 only (D) Cytokinesis only

15. A physician finds that a nine-year-old male patient is entering puberty much earlier than usual. Such a condition is most likely the result of a tumor in the_____ .(A) hypothalamus, producing elevated levels of testosterone (B) anterior pituitary, producing elevated levels of testosterone (C) testes, producing elevated levels of estrogen (D) anterior pituitary, producing elevated levels of gonadotropins

16. Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and, therefore, can be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student-faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides to study the incorporation of labeled nucleotides into a culture of lymphocytes. They found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labeled nucleotide at a significantly higher level after a pathogen was introduced into the culture. What might they conclude from this observation? (A) The pathogen consumed radiolabeled nucleotides. (B) Infection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly. (C) Infection causes lymphocytes to increase in size. (D) Infection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle.

17. Which of the following statements describes one characteristic of each chromosome in a cell during the entire process of meiosis I? (A) Each chromosome is paired with a homologous chromosome. (B) Each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids joined by a centromere. (C) Each chromosome consists of a single strand of DNA. (D) Each chromosome is joined with its homologous pair to form a synaptonemal complex.

18. In an egg cell treated with a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions, the_____. (A) acrosomal reaction would be blocked (B) fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked (C) fast block to polyspermy would not occur (D) fertilization envelope would not be formed

19. The bulldog ant has a diploid number of two chromosomes. Therefore, following meiosis, each daughter cell will have a single chromosome. In addition to mutations, how might genetic diversity be generated in this species? (A) crossing over only (B) independent assortment only (C) crossing over and random fertilization (D) nothing else

20. The suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in the_____. (A) hypothalamus (B) epithalamus (C) amygdala (D) Broca's area

21. Two genes are located on different chromosomes. Which event during meiosis is primarily responsible for generating different combinations of maternal and paternal alleles in the gametes? (A) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes during prophase I (B) Random orientation of homologous chromosome pairs during metaphase I (C) Separation of sister chromatids during anaphase II (D) Crossing over between nonsister chromatids

22. A mutation eliminates the activity of an enzyme in a metabolic pathway. The substrate accumulates to toxic levels, while the product becomes deficient. Which treatment strategy would most directly address both consequences of the mutation? (A) Increase the intake of the substrate (B) Restrict the intake of the substrate and supplement the product (C) Increase ATP production in affected cells (D) Stimulate expression of unrelated metabolic enzymes

23. One key adaptation that enabled plants to colonize land was the retention of the developing embryo within maternal tissues. What advantage did this adaptation provide? (A) Increased dispersal distance (B) Reduced mutation rate (C) Nutritional support and protection during development (D) Increased pollen production

24. You find a plant unfamiliar to you and observe that it has vascular bundles scattered throughout the stem cross section. What do you conclude about the plant? (A) It is probably an herbaceous eudicot. (B) It will probably get annual rings of wood. (C) It is probably a monocot. (D) It could be either a young eudicot or a monocot.

25. The structural integrity of bacteria is to peptidoglycan as the structural integrity of plant spores is to ________.(A) lignin (B) cellulose (C) secondary compounds (D) sporopollenin

26. A water molecule could move all the way through a plant from soil to root to leaf to air and pass through a living cell only once. This living cell would be a part of which structure? (A) a guard cell (B) the root epidermis (C) the endodermis (D) the root cortex

27. A mineral deficiency is likely to affect older leaves more than younger leaves if (A) the mineral is a micronutrient. (B) the mineral is very mobile within the plant. (C) the mineral is required for chlorophyll synthesis. (D) the mineral is a macronutrient.

28. Testosterone is an example of a chemical signal that affects the very cells that synthesize it, the neighboring cells in the testis, along with distant cells outside the gonads. Thus, testosterone is an example of _________.
I) an autocrine signal
II) a paracrine signal
III) an endocrine signal (A) only I and II (B) only II and III (C) only I and III (D) I, II, and III

29. Which of the following statements are correct?
I) Hormones often regulate homeostasis through antagonistic functions.
II) Hormones of the same chemical class usually have the same function.
III) Hormones are secreted by specialized cells usually located in exocrine glands.
IV) Hormones are often regulated through feedback loops. (A) only II and III (B) only I and III (C) only III and IV (D) only I and IV

30. Blood is pumped at high pressures in arteries from the heart to ensure that all parts of the body receive adequate blood flow. Capillary beds, however, would hemorrhage under direct arterial pressures. How does the design of the circulatory network contribute to reducing blood pressure to avoid this scenario? (A) Blood flow through the capillaries is essentially frictionless, and this reduces the amount of pressure on their walls. (B) The total cross-sectional area of the arterial circulation increases with progression from artery to arteriole to capillary, leading to a reduced blood pressure. (C) Fluid loss from the arteries is high enough that pressure drops off significantly by the time blood reaches the capillaries. (D) Capillary beds have the thickest walls of any blood vessel to resist these high pressures.

31. A researcher adds oligomycin, an inhibitor of ATP synthase, to actively respiring liver cells. Which of the following changes would most likely occur? (A) Oxygen consumption would increase. (B) ATP production would decrease and the proton gradient would increase. (C) ATP production would increase and the proton gradient would decrease. (D) NADH production would immediately stop.

32. Which of the following contributes to maintaining the high osmolarity of the renal medulla? I) active transport of salt from the upper region of the ascending limb II) the spatial arrangement of juxtamedullary nephrons III) diffusion of urea from the collecting duct IV) diffusion of salt from the descending limb of the loop of Henle (A) All of these conditions contribute to the osmolarity of the medulla. (B) I, II, and III (C) I and IV (D) I, II, and IV

33. The primitive streak in a bird is the functional equivalent of__________. (A) the lip of the blastopore in the frog (B) the archenteron in a frog (C) the notochord in a mammal (D) neural crest cells in a mammal

34. Which of the following statements are fundamental to the clonal selection theory of how the adaptive immune system functions?
I) Each lymphocyte has a unique membrane receptor that recognizes one antigen.
II) When the lymphocyte binds an antigen, it is activated and begins dividing to form many identical copies of itself. III) Cloned lymphocytes have slight differences and are selected by the spleen for removal if they do not bind an antigen.
IV) Cloned cells descend from an activated lymphocyte and persist even after the pathogen is eliminated. (A) only I and III (B) only II and IV (C) only I, II, and IV (D) only II, III, and IV

35. In a Sanger sequencing reaction, a fluorescently labeled ddATP is incorporated into a growing DNA strand. What will happen immediately after its incorporation? (A) DNA synthesis continues normally. (B) DNA synthesis terminates because no 3' hydroxyl group is available. (C) DNA polymerase dissociates and degrades the template strand. (D) The fragment is replicated by PCR.

36. Two species of lizards occupy the same habitat and consume similar insects. Experimental removal of one species causes the remaining species to expand its feeding range and consume a wider variety of prey. This observation provides the strongest evidence for: (A) resource partitioning (B) mutualism (C) ecological succession (D) density-independent regulation

37. A mutation causes degeneration of hair cells that respond maximally to vibrations of the stiffest region of the basilar membrane. Which auditory deficit would most likely result? (A) Loss of low-frequency hearing (B) Loss of high-frequency hearing (C) Complete deafness (D) Inability to localize sound

38. Select the pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells. (A) B cell contact antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs (B) body cell becomes infected with a virus → new viral proteins appear → class I MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface (C) complement is secreted → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated → cytokines released (D) cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed → cytokines released → cell lysis

39. Which of the following is common to the development of birds and mammals? (A) The formation of an embryonic epiblast and hypoblast (B) The formation of an embryonic trophoblast (C) The formation of an embryonic yolk plug (D) The formation of an embryonic gray crescent

40. A researcher applies a drug that prevents neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic terminal without affecting action potential propagation. Which change would most likely be observed in the postsynaptic cell? (A) Voltage-gated Ca²⁺ channels would remain closed. (B) Ligand-gated ion channels would fail to open. (C) Resting membrane potential would become more positive. (D) Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels would remain permanently inactivated.