所屬科目：教甄◆英文科
1. People have great ______ to adapt to different living conditions; their ability to cope is immeasurable. (A) similarity (B) reflection (C) capacity (D) interaction
2. Utilized extensively within modern aromatherapy, the volatile essential oils derived from lavender are hypothesized to ______ psychological distress. (A) assimilate (B) alleviate (C) accumulate (D) adulterate
3. Probably one of the most important qualities we can teach our children is ______, the ability to recover strongly from difficulties faced during their lives. (A) resilience (B) concurrence (C) pertinence (D) inference
4. Schools should aim to decrease students' ______ to misinformation by teaching critical thinking skills. (A) infringement (B) pandemonium (C) rapprochement (D) susceptibility
5. Governments must invest in retraining programs to ______ the social upheaval caused by automation. (A) decimate (B) forebode (C) mitigate (D) sabotage
6. The pursuit of scientific discovery is ______ risky; for every breakthrough, there are countless failed experiments that go unrecorded. (A) grudgingly (B) inherently (C) judiciously (D) ravenously
7. To ensure the longevity of the historical documents, the museum curators must ______ manage the humidity levels in the archives. (A) sumptuously (B) sporadically (C) scrupulously (D) synergistically
8. The month-long strike ended after the university ______ some of the student protestors' demands. (A) conceded (B) contorted (C) refracted (D) suffused
9. After the local team started winning every game, many people who weren't even fans decided to ______. (A) sat on the fence (B) go down in flames (C) beat around the bush (D) jump on the bandwagon
10. The administration's decision to curtail subsidies during a fiscal crisis ______ the fears of the middle class, leading to widespread social unrest. (A) cast a pall over (B) played second fiddle to (C) fanned the flames of (D) dampened the spirits of 1
11. _____________ had the CEO implemented the radical restructuring plan than the company’s stock prices began to stabilize after months of volatility. (A) Scarcely (B) No sooner (C) Hardly ever (D) Not only
12. The institutional review board mandated that the principal investigator _____________ all raw data to the ethics board before proceeding with the second phase of the clinical trial. (A) submit (B) submitted (C) would submit (D) will submit
13. After reviewing the feedback from the initial testing phase, the project manager announced that the official launch date of the new software _____________. (A) postpones (B) will postpone (C) was postponing (D) has been postponed
14. Had the diplomatic mission failed to reach a consensus, the neighboring regions _____________ into an era of interminable civil strife. (A) should be catapulted (B) might have catapulted (C) would have been catapulted (D) had been catapulted
15. What is the fundamental difference between EMI and CLIL regarding “scaffolding”? (A) EMI provides more language scaffolding because students must understand difficult academic content. (B) CLIL typically provides extensive language scaffolding through visual aids, sentence frames, and word banks. (C) EMI mainly uses scaffolding activities to help students memorize academic vocabulary and grammar rules. (D) Neither EMI nor CLIL includes scaffolding support because students are expected to learn independently.
16. Erickson’s psychosocial theory explains human development as a series of eight stages, each defined by a central conflict that shapes _____________ and social functioning. (A) fraternity (B) personality (C) legibility (D) tonality
17. (A) staple (B) heal (C) free (D) suit
18. (A) established (B) establishing (C) establishes (D) establish
19. (A) with (B) from (C) by (D) for
20. (A) those (B) these (C) this (D) that
21. (A) credit (B) access (C) symbol (D) code
22. (A) congenitally (B) contingently (C) instinctively (D) intrinsically
23. (A) acutely (B) accordingly (C) acquiescently (D) accidently
24. (A) In its nascent gestation (B) At its subsequent maturation (C) In its latent manifestations (D) On its initial inception
25. (A) catalog the empirical dimensions of (B) capitalize on the latent synergies of (C) compromise the structural integrity of (D) circumvent the inherent constraints of
26. (A) dismiss the necessity of classical technological paradigms (B) diminish the complexity of existing diagnostic protocols (C) derive the blueprint for next-generation bio-inspired sensors (D) deviate from the established standards of modern electronics
27. (A) galvanizing (B) enervating (C) obviating (D) subverting
28. (A) Tantamount to (B) Incongruous with (C) Distinct from (D) Divergent from
29. (A) Be that as it may (B) By the same token (C) As a direct corollary (D) In a similar vein
30. (A) sequestered (B) calibrated (C) relegated (D) superseded
31. (A) nascent (B) versatile (C) vestigial (D) aberrant
32. Which statement best summarizes the author's perspective on deepfakes? (A) They represent a primarily computational dilemma requiring more robust algorithmic detection frameworks as a solitary resolution. (B) Their most profound threat resides in the systemic destabilization of shared reality, fostering a pervasive climate of indiscriminate skepticism. (C) They are a transient technological phase that will be neutralized by the innate adaptive intelligence of the digital native population. (D) The creative utility of synthetic media in the arts sufficiently justifies the collateral damage to the integrity of political discourse.
33. What is the "liar's dividend" as described in the passage? (A) The strategic advantage leveraged by dishonest actors to delegitimize authentic evidence by exploiting the public's generalized skepticism. (B) The economic incentives provided to academic institutions for the integration of AI-verification protocols into modern curricula. (C) The fiscal gains reaped by software conglomerates through the monetization of hyper-realistic digital synthesis tools. (D) The geopolitical leverage obtained through the mass distribution of state-sponsored disinformation during electoral cycles.
34. What is the author’s primary strategic objective in introducing the concept of “lateral reading”? (A) To provide a comprehensive technical manual for students to ethically synthesize hyper-realistic media for pedagogical purposes. (B) To argue that the intrinsic features of a video remain the most reliable metric for verifying digital authenticity in the AI era. (C) To advocate for a pedagogical paradigm shift that prioritizes cross-referential verification over traditional content analysis. (D) To underscore the necessity of legislative intervention in mandating the use of state-approved detection software in public schools.
35. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the limitations of traditional “fact-checking” in the era of deepfakes? (A) It is prohibitively time-consuming and fails to keep pace with the rapid dissemination cycles of advanced machine learning algorithms. (B) It primarily targets the film and gaming industries while neglecting the ore insidious threats posed by political disinformation. (C) It lacks the legislative authority required to penalize individuals who benefit from the “liar’s dividend” in institutional settings. (D) It erroneously assumes that digital authenticity can still be validated by scrutinizing the internal consistency of a solitary source.
36. What of the following best encapsulates the author’s underlying assumption regarding the future of information integrity? (A) The efficacy of digital defense resides less in algorithmic sophistication than in the cognitive adaptability of the individual. (B) The restoration of institutional trust is contingent upon the mandatory implementation of centralized AI-detection databases (C) Technological advancement will eventually reach a plateau, allowing human cognitive defense mechanisms to regain a permanent advantage. (D) The potential for creative innovation in synthetic media will ultimately necessitate the total abandonment of objective truth as a social construct.
37. Which of the following best articulates the central thesis of the passage? (A) The ontological delineation of "third places" as vital conduits for social cohesion and their ongoing displacement by utilitarian "non-places." (B) The historical transition from agrarian community hubs to industrialized "second places" and the resulting economic disparity. (C) The architectural necessity of prioritizing transportation efficiency over the psychological comfort of urban inhabitants. (D) The socio-political implications of "tactical urbanism" as a primary fiscal strategy for maximizing metropolitan economic output.
38. How do "non-places" fundamentally diverge from "third places" in terms of their sociopolitical function? (A) Non-places are characterized by their geographic proximity to residential zones rather than transit hubs. 7 (B) Non-places are defined by their functionalist utility, prioritizing transient movement over the organic cultivation of social capital. (C) Non-places offer a more egalitarian environment for social status leveling than traditional third places. (D) Non-places require significant financial investment from the private sector to foster community engagement.
39. According to the passage, the erosion of “third places” within the urban fabric precipitates which of the following sociopolitical shifts? (A) An escalation in psychological burnout characterized by the loss of clear demarcations between domestic and professional spheres. (B) A progressive deflation in the operational costs of metropolitan infrastructure through the centralization of commerce. (C) The involuntary migration of marginalized populations toward standardized “non-places” as a primary mode of social survival. (D) The atrophy of civic engagement and the fragmentation of heterogeneous social networks across different socioeconomic strata.
40. Which of the following best characterizes the methodology of "tactical urbanism"? (A) A top-down bureaucratic initiative designed to maximize the economic output of metropolitan transit networks. (B) A commercial strategy employed by shopping malls to simulate the social atmosphere of traditional town squares. (C) Incremental, community-led modifications aimed at reclaiming utilitarian spaces for public discourse and leisure. (D) The systematic digitization of communal hubs to facilitate remote social interactions in “non-places.”
41. Which of the following best characterizes the author’s philosophical stance regarding the assessment of urban vitality? (A) Holistic and sociological, asserting that the resilience of a metropolis is fundamentally predicated on the robustness of its informal communal ties. (B) Nostalgic and protectionist, advocating for the total restoration of traditional physical libraries as the sole remedy for “touristification.” (C) Empirical and utilitarian, prioritizing the expansion of high-efficiency transit networks as the primary metric for systemic health. (D) Skeptical and dismissive, suggesting that the psychological well-being of inhabitants is an intangible factor that complicates objective urban planning.
42. What was the author's purpose in writing this article? (A) To show how scientific developments can help conservation efforts. (B) To inform the reader of some wildlife conservation success stories. (C) To convince the reader to be more active in local conservation efforts. (D) To explain why some endangered species are more worthy of saving than others.
43. Which is NOT mentioned as a threat to animal populations in the passage? (A) Hunting (B) Urbanization (C) Disease (D) Pollution from pesticides
44. Which of the following situations regarding the ban on whale hunting would the author like to see? (A) The ban remains in place. (B) The ban is lifted for most whale species. (C) The ban is lifted for all whale species. (D) The effectiveness of the ban is challenged and tested.
45. Which of the following is NOT a cause to an increase in otter numbers? (A) Their listing as a protected species. (B) An improvement in river water quality. (C) The removal of dangerous roads near rivers. (D) The banning of a particular kind of pesticide.
46. The author's characterization of the "irony" in the first paragraph primarily serves to: (A) Criticize the historical failure of human advisors to support students. (B) Highlight the high cost of implementing AI agents in traditional universities. (C) Argue that "human reconnaissance" is an outdated concept in the digital age. (D) Illustrate that technological intervention can paradoxically enhance human connection.
47. According to the passage, which best explains how AI agents "preserve" human-centered support? (A) AI requires human advisors to verify every student interaction for quality assurance. (B) AI agents completely take over all communication between students and institutions. (C) AI handles routine tasks, allowing human advisors to focus on empathy and complex support. (D) AI provides emotional support more effectively than humans and is gradually replacing advisors.
48. It can be inferred from the tutoring discussion that a major barrier to student success is: (A) A shortage of tutors and funds. (B) Mental reluctance to seek help. (C) Delays in real-time data systems. (D) AI can't understand complex subjects.
49. The passage suggests that the relationship between AI agents and human advisors is best described as: (A) Complementary. (B) Interdisciplinary. (C) Underprivileged. (D) Sanctimonious.
50. A university administrator notices that many prospective students start their online applications but stop midway through the financial aid section. According to the essay, how should the AI agent be programmed to address this specific "pain point"? (A) Their ability to replace the academic registrar in determining graduation requirements. (B) It should immediately block the student from accessing the portal until they pay a deposit. (C) It should automatically fill in the student's financial data using information found on social media. (D) It should trigger a real-time intervention by asking if the student needs help with transcripts or deadlines.
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