28. A man taking multiple medications develops drug toxicity. Laboratory analysis reveals impaired Phase I metabolism. Which of the following reactions is most likely deficient in this patient?
(A) Hydroxylation by cytochrome P450
(B) Glucuronidation by UDP-glucuronyltransferase
(C) Sulfation by sulfotransferase
(D) Glutathione conjugation by glutathione S-transferase
(E) Acetylation by N-acetyltransferase

29. A researcher incubates hepatocytes with 15NH4Cl and observes that 15N appears first in glutamate, then subsequently in aspartate. Which of the following best explains this sequential labeling? (A) 15NH4+ → glutamine (by glutamine synthetase) → glutamate → aspartate (by transamination) (B)  15NH4+→ glutamate (by glutamate dehydrogenase) → aspartate (by transamination with oxaloacetate) (C) 15NH4+→ carbamoyl phosphate (by CPS I) → glutamate → aspartate (via urea cycle intermediates) (D)  15NH4+ → glutamate (by glutamate dehydrogenase using succinate) → aspartate (by transamination with fumarate) (E)  15NH4+→ glutamate (by glutamine synthetase) → aspartate (by reductive amination of oxaloacetate)

30. Which enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandins and thromboxanes from arachidonic acid? (A) Lipoxygenase (B) Cyclooxygenase (C) Desaturase (D) Elongase (E) Peroxidase

31. During a stressful event, the body produces both immediate and long-term physiological responses. Which of the following best describes how the hypothalamus and adrenal glands work together in this stress response? (A) The hypothalamus releases corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) directly into the bloodstream to stimulate the adrenal medulla to secrete glucocorticoids. (B) The adrenal medulla secretes glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, which produce rapid "fight-or-flight" responses. (C) The hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids during long-term stress. (D) Mineralocorticoids released from the adrenal medulla primarily increase heart rate during acute stress. (E) During the short-term stress response, the anterior pituitary releases epinephrine directly into the bloodstream to bypass the slower neural pathways of the sympathetic nervous system.

32. During DNA replication of an eukaryotic cell, a guanine (G) is mistakenly paired with a thymine (T) and escapes the initial proofreading by DNA polymerase. This G-T pair becomes fully incorporated into the double helix. Which of the following best describes how the cell corrects this mismatch/error? (A) The cell utilizes DNA photolyase to break the hydrogen bonds between the mismatched bases and flip them into the correct orientation. (B) The cell utilizes specific endonucleases to recognize the helical distortion and identify the newly synthesized strand to cut out the segment containing the incorrect nucleotide. (C) The cell utilizes RNA primase to recognize the mismatched sites, where it initiates reverse transcription to replace the DNA segment with a temporary RNA patch. (D) The cell utilizes DNA ligase to identify the incorrect hydrogen bonding site and uses its 5' to 3' exonuclease activity to chew back the faulty nucleotide. (E) The cell utilizes a multi-protein complex to scan the DNA for bulky lesions and remove a 12-30 nucleotide oligomer of the damaged strand.

33. Long-term potentiation (LTP) represents a fundamental cellular mechanism underlying learning and memory. Which of the following best describes a critical requirement for the induction of early-phase LTP? (A) Sustained activation of NMDA receptors leading to Ca2+ influx, which directly promotes rapid insertion of AMPA receptors into the postsynaptic membrane. (B) Ca2+ influx through NMDA receptors following postsynaptic depolarization, which triggers the translocation of additional AMPA receptors to the postsynaptic membrane via calcium/calmodulin-dependent protein kinase II (CaMKII) signaling. (C) Increased presynaptic glutamate release caused by enhanced vesicle docking, which by itself is sufficient to maintain persistent synaptic potentiation. (D) Activation of postsynaptic glycine receptor chloride channels, which leads to the depolarization that relieves the Mg2+ block of NMDA receptors. (E) Immediate activation of cAMP response element-binding protein (CREB)-dependent gene transcription in the absence of Ca2+ influx, which primes neurons for later potentiation.

34. The number and size of Golgi apparatus vary depending on the type of cell. How many of the following are functions of the Golgi apparatus? I. formation of extracellular enzymes II. modification of proteins III. formation of peptide bonds through condensation reactions IV. synthesis of certain polysaccharides (A) None of the above. (B) One of the above. (C) Two of the above. (D) Three of the above. (E) All of the above.

35. In 2018, an organization carried out a global survey into the attitudes of people towards vaccines. Vaccines provide artificial active immunity. Which of the following is not a correct statement about how a vaccine results in active immunity? (A) A vaccine results in active immunity by that Vaccine contains an inactive/attenuated form of the pathogen / virus / bacteria /microorganism. (B) Macrophages engulf and display the antigen on their cell surface. (C) Macrophages will present the antigen to T helper cells. (D) T helper cells will activate B/T killer cells. (E) The vaccine provides ready-made antibodies that immediately neutralize the pathogen.

36. If a dog is suffering from an autoimmune response. On further investigation, you find that the cells of various tissues are loosely arranged and do not have characteristic shapes, and the animal is prone to hemorrhaging because of poor blood clotting. Based on these results, the target of the autoimmune response is most likely to be __________. (A) fibronectins (B) laminins (C) extensins (D) pectins (E) elastins

37. Which of the following conditions is not caused by a fungus? (A) giardiasis (B) athlete's foot (C) candidiasis (D) coccidioidomycosis (E) ringworm

38. In the human genome, a variation in a single DNA base pair, such as the substitution of a cytosine ( C ) for a thymine (T), that occurs in more than 1% of the population is known as a __________. They serve as powerful molecular markers in genome-wide association studies (GWAS) to identify genetic predispositions to complex diseases. (A) insertion-deletion mutation (InDel) (B) haplotype block (C) single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) (D) copy number variant (CNV) (E) short tandem repeat (STR)

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