74. Which of the following steps in the TCA cycle may produce NADH?
① Acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate to citrate ② Citrate to isocitrate ③ Isocitrate to α-ketoglutarate ④ α-Ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA
(A) ①②
(B) ②③
(C) ②④
(D) ③④
(E) ①③④

75. If a cell cannot synthesize or obtain tetrahydrofolate (H₄ folate), it will most likely be impaired in the biosynthesis of which amino acid? (A) Isoleucine (B) Leucine (C) Lysine (D) Serine (E) Methionine

76. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? (A) Δ¹-Pyrroline-5-carboxylate serves as a key intermediate in both L-proline synthesis and breakdown pathways. (B) Human cells synthesize non-essential amino acids using intermediates from central metabolic pathways or by converting essential amino acids. (C) Phenylalanine hydroxylase catalyzes the interconversion between phenylalanine and tyrosine. (D) Liver cells produce serine starting from the glycolysis product 3-phosphoglycerate. (E) NADPH provides the ultimate source of reducing equivalents for tetrahydrobiopterin regeneration.

77. Which enzyme–effector pair is matched correctly? (A) Phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2) / fructose-2,6-bisphosphate (B) Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) / fructose-1,6-bisphosphate (C) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase (FBPase-1) / fructose-1,6-bisphosphate (D) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase (FBPase-2) / fructose-2,6-bisphosphate (E) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase (FBPase-1) / fructose-2,6-bisphosphate

78. Which second messenger is produced after nitrogen monoxide (NO) stimulation? (A) cAMP (B) cGMP (C) Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (D) Inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (E) Diacylglycerol

79. Tamoxifen is used as adjuvant therapy for breast cancer. Which statement about tamoxifen is correct? (A) It blocks male hormones. (B) It works better in estrogen receptor negative tumors. (C) It enters cells via surface receptors. (D) It binds estrogen receptors. (E) It inhibits estrogen production.

80. An open reading frame is defined by _____. (A) a start and stop codon (B) homology with other species (C) placement on a genome map (D) presence of transposable elements (E) absence of highly repetitive sequences

81. TFIIH is a transcription factor that is responsible for forming the transcription bubble. For this reason, TFIIH is best described as a _____. (A) gyrase (B) ligase (C) helicase (D) endonuclease (E) single-strand binding protein

82. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? (A) A major objective of proteomics is to identify all of the proteins present in a cell under different conditions. (B) Tandem mass spectrometry has largely replaced the Edman method for the identification of peptides and proteins. (C) In electrospray ionization mass spectrometry, molecules of a single protein produce a family of peaks, with each successive peak corresponding to a protein ion with one additional charge and a correspondingly lower m/z value. (D) Since mass is a universal property of all atoms and molecules, mass spectrometry is ideally suited to the detection of posttranslational modifications in peptides/proteins. (E) Time-of-flight mass is a method to make molecules bear electric charges.

83. To determine an enzyme’s turnover number (kcat), you need to know: (A) Both the enzyme concentration and the initial reaction rate measured when [S] is much greater than Km (B) The initial reaction rate when [S] is much greater than Km (C) The initial reaction rate at low substrate concentration (D) The substrate’s Km (E) The enzyme concentration

84. Two proteins have similar molecular masses (protein A: isoelectric point 5.8, 50 kDa; protein B: isoelectric point 8.5, 50.5 kDa). Which technique would most effectively separate them? (A) Size-exclusion chromatography (B) Ion exchange chromatography (C) SDS-PAGE (D) Ultracentrifugation (E) X-ray crystallography

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